Guest Francis Audet Posted March 17, 2014 Share Posted March 17, 2014 Hi dear experts, why is it that for example a Kp of 5 is required to potentially spark Auroras in the mid-west USA, at a lattitude of 46-47 Degrees, while that same Kp will only spark auroras at the 60 Degree in Europe? Has it to do (mainly, totally?) with the non-tru north magnetic north? Or is there something else at play here? Thanks Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vancanneyt Sander Posted March 17, 2014 Share Posted March 17, 2014 There is a difference in the geographic north and magnetic north: Because the magnetic north is more south than the geographic north and that point is situated in favor of the US/Canada, Europe will get less aurorae on middle and lower geographic latitudes. So in Geographic latitude speaking for Belgium: 52°N we need a Kp-indice of 7 to view aurorae. In magnetic latitudes Belgium is at 45° magnetic latitude. If i look at the city Atlanta in the state Georgia USA it has a magnetic latitude if 44.5° so it's comparable. The geographic latitude is 33°N. In our help article about the low, middle and high latitudes we have some images with the location of the oval for a given K-indice. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Waldo Hazeleger Posted March 18, 2014 Share Posted March 18, 2014 A nice explanation is on this page. Here you can see the difference between the magnetic latitudes of europe and north america, and what kp level is needed for auroral activity. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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